Monday, November 17, 2025

System of Particles & Rotational Motion,Chemical Kinetics,Plant Kingdom,Biomolecules

 TOTAL MARKS :720 No of Questions:180

TOPIC: System of Particles& Rotational Motion,Chemical kinetics,   Time: 3 Hrs

Plant Kingdom, Biomolecules


PHYSICS

1. The centre of mass of a body.

(a) Always lies at the geometrical centre (b)Always lies inside the body 

(c) Maylies inside (or) outside the body (d)Always lie outside the body

2.  

 

3. A spherical hollow is made in a lead sphere of radius R such that its surface touches the outside surface of lead sphere and passes through the centre. What is the shift in the centre of mass of lead sphere as a result of this hollowing? 

4. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central force is constant due to 

(a) constant torque (b) constant force (c) constant linear momentum (d) zero torque

5. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved? 

(a) centre of the circle (b) on the circumference of the circle. (c) inside the circle (d) outside the circle.

6. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R about its diameter is

 

7 .A ring of mass m and radius r is melted andthen moulded into a sphere. The moment ofinertia of the sphere will be 

(a) More than that of the ring (b) Less than thatofthe ring 

(c) Equal to that of the ring (d) None of the above

8. The moment of inertia of hollow cylinder of mass M and radius R about its axis of rotation is MR2. The radius of gyration of the cylinderabout this axis is

 

9. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length L about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its length is



10 .The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular disc of mass M and radius r about a line perpendicular to the plane of the disc through the centre is

 

11. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is

 

12. A wheel of moment of inertia 103 kgm² isrotating with angular speed of 5 rad/s. The torque required to stop it in 2 s is 

(a) 1250 Nm (b) 5000 Nm (c) 2000 Nm (d) 2500 Nm

13. A body is rotating with angular velocity 30 rads-1. If its kinetic energy is 360 J, then its moment of inertia is

 

14. The work done in rotating a body twice around an axis, by applying a torque of12 N m is 

(a) 48πJ (b) 24 π J (c) 3π J (d) 12 π J

15. The shaft of a motor is making 1260rpm. The torque supplied by the motor is 100Nm. The power of motor is (in KW) 

(a) 100 (b)21 (c) 13.2 (d) 4.8

16 .An automobile engine develops 100 kW power when rotating with angular speed of 250 rad/s. The torque developed by it will be about 

(a) 680 Nm (b)480 Nm (c) 580 Nm (d) 400 Nm

17 .lf no external torque acts on the system, then total angular momentum of the system 

(a) Must be constant (b) Must be zero (c) Must be variable (d) May be variable

18. A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a child sits on it, whatis conserved 

(a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum (c) Kinetic energy (d) potential energy

19. 

 

 

20 .A body rotates about a fixed axis with an angular acceleration of 3 rad/s2 . The angle rotated by it during the time when its angular velocity increases from 10 rad/s to 20 rad/s (in radian) is 

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200

21 .A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases  from  20π rads-1 to 40 a rads-1 in 10s. How many rotations did it make in this period? 

(a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 150

22. For which of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body? 

(a) A pencil (b)A shotput (c) A dice (d) A bangle

23. When a disc rotates with uniform angular velocity, which of the following is not true? 

(a) The sense of remains same. (b) The orientation of the axis of rotation remains same. 

(c) The speed of rotation is non-zero and remains same.

(d) The angular acceleration is non-zero and remains same.

24. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration ofthe disc about its diameter is

 

25. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s² is:

(a) 2π (b) 4 π (с) 12 π (d) 104 π

26. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius ‘R' an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K times ‘MR²". Then the value of 'K' is:

 

27. A solid cylinder of mass 2kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolution is:

 

28. Two particles A and B moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A and that of B will be:

 

29.A solid sphere is rotating its freely about symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?.

(a)Angular velocity  (b) Moment of inertia  (c) Angular momentum  (d) Rotational kinetic energy

30. Which of the following statements are correct? 

(1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body. 

(2) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero 

(3) A couple on a body produces both translational and rotational motion in a body 

(4) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load

(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) (c) (3) and (4) (d) None of these

31. In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:

Assertion: When no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains constant as longas moment of inertia is constant.

 

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is the not correct explanation of assertion. 

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

32. Assertion: A girl sits on a rolling chair, when she stretch her arms horizontally, her speed is reduced. Reason: Principle of conservation of angular momentum is applicable in this situation.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is the not correct explanation of assertion. 

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

33. If angular displacement of a particle moving on a curved path be given as,  = 1.5 t + 2t2, where t is in sec, the angular velocity at t = 2 sec, will be 

(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 9.5 (D) 8.5 

34. All the particles of a rigid body in a rotatory motion have axis of rotation: 

(A) Passing from any point inside the object

(B) Passing from any point outside the object

(C) Passing from any point

(D) Passing from centre of mass of object

35. A fan is running at 3000 rpm. It is switched off. It comes to rest by uniformly decreasing its angular speed in 10 seconds. The total number of revolution in this period.

(A) 150 (B) 250 (C) 350 (D)300

36. The moment of inertia of a uniform ring of mass M and radius r about a tangent lying in its own plane is 

(A) 2Mr2 (B)   Mr2 (C) Mr2 (D)   Mr2 

37. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about a tangent to its rim in its plane is :

(A)  MR2 (B)   MR2  (C)   MR2  (D)   MR2 

38. A solid cylinder 30 cm in diameter at the top of an inclined plane 2.0 m high is released and rolls down the incline without loss of energy due to friction. Its linear speed at the bottom is

(A) 5.29 m/sec (B)4.1 x 103 m/sec (C) 51 m/sec (D) 51 cm/sec

39. On account of melting of ice at the north pole the moment of inertia of spinning earth ¬

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains unchanged (D) depends on the time

40. The torque applied to a ring revolving about its own axis so as to change its angular momentum by 2 J-s. in 5 s, is

(A) 10N-m (B) 2.5 N-m (C) 0.1N-m (D) 0.4 N-m 

41. A solid uniform disc of mass m rolls without slipping down an inclined plane with an acceleration a. The frictional force on the disc due to surface of the plane is

(A) 2 ma (B)   ma (C) ma (D)   ma

42. A body whose moment of inertia is 3 kg-m2 is in rest. It is rotated for 20 sec by a torque of 6 Nm, angular displacement of the body will be :

(A) 400 radian (B) 200 radian (C) 100 radian (D) 250 radian

43. A force     acts on a body at a point having position vector   relative to origin of co-ordinates on the axis of rotation . The torque acting on the body is :

(A)  38  (B)   25 

(C)  62  (D)  none of these

44. A smooth inclined plane fixed in a car accelerating on a horizontal road is shown in figure. The angle of incline  is related to the acceleration a of the car as a = g tan. If the sphere is set in pure rolling on the incline 

 

(A) it will continue pure rolling

(B) it will slip up the plane

(C) its angular velocity will increase

(D) its angular velocity will decrease. 


45. Assertion : A thin uniform rod is undergoing fixed axis rotation about one of its end with variable angular acceleration. Then acceleration vector of any two moving points on the rod can not be parallel at an instant of time.

Reason : For a rod undergoing fixed axis rotation, the velocity of any two moving points on the rod at different distances from centre of rotation are different.

(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. 

(C) If Assertion is true but reason is false.

(D) If both assertion and reason are false.



CHEMISTRY

46. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as follows

+1/2  d[C]/dt=-1/5  d[D]/dt=+1/3  d[A]/dt=-d[B]/dt

The reaction is

(a.) 4A+B→2C+3D

(b.) B+5D→3A+2C

(c.) 4A+2B→2C+3D

(d.) B+1/2 D→4A+2C

47. For a first order reaction, the concentration changes from 0.8 to 0.4 in 15 min. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is 

(a.) 30 Min               (b.) 15 Min                    (c.) 7.5 min                 (d.) 60 min

48. The half-life period for a zero order reaction is equal to

(a.) 2k/[A]_0 

(b.) [A]_0/2k

(c.) (0.693)/k

(d.) (0.693)/(k[A]_0 )

49. For a gaseous reaction, the units of rate of rate of reaction are

(a.) L atm s^(-1)                                 (b.) atm s^(-1)                   (c.) atm 〖mol〗^(-1)  s^(-1)                   (d.) mol s^(-1)

50. For the reaction, N_2+3H_2⇌2〖NH〗_3 the rate of change of concentration for hydrogen is -0.3×〖10〗^(-4)  〖Ms〗^(-1).  The rate of change of concentration of ammonia is

(a.) -0.2×〖10〗^(-4) (b.) 0.2×〖10〗^(-4)

(c.) 0.1×〖10〗^(-4) (d.) 0.3×〖10〗^(-4)

51. For a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction is measured for various initial concentrations A and B. the data provided are

[A] [B] Initial reaction rate

1 0.20 M 0.30 M 5×〖10〗^(-5)

2 0.20 M 0.10 M 5×〖10〗^(-5)

3 0.40 M 0.05 M 1×〖10〗^(-5)

The overall order of the reaction is 

(a.) One                            (b.) Two                              (c.) Two and half                                    (d.) Three

52. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10℃ rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised by 50℃, the rate of the reaction increases by about

(a.) 10 times                             (b.) 24 times                                   (c.) 32 times                              (d.) 64 times

53. The units of the rate constant of a second order reaction are

(a.) mol^(-1) L^(-1) s^(-1)                     (b.) mol^(-1) Ls^(-1)                       (c.) mol^(-1) Ls                     (d.) mol L^(-1) s^(-1)

54. In the following reaction A→B+C, rate constant is 0.001 〖Ms〗^(-1).  Half-life and completion time of the given reaction are

(a.) 500 s, 1000 s (b.) 500 s, 750 s

(c.) 250 s, 500 s (d.) 300 s, 600 s

55. Which one of the following statement for order of reaction is not correct ?

(a.) Order can be determined experimentally

(b.) Order of reaction is equal to sum of the power of concentration terms in differential rate law

(c.) It is not affected with stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants

(d.) Order cannot be fractional

56. For the chemical change A→B it is found that the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration is increased by 4 times.  The order of the reaction is

(a.) One                       (b.) Two                      (c.) Half                             (d.) None of these

57. In the sequence of reaction,

A□(→┴(     k_1      ) ) B□(→┴(     k_2      ) ) C□(→┴(     k_3      ) ) D k_3>k_2>k_1 then the rate determining step of reaction is

(a.) A→B

(b.) B→C

(c.) C→D

(d.) A→D

58. Which increases on increase of temperature?

(a.) Energy of activation (E_a) (b.) Collision frequency (Z)

(c.) Rate constant (k) (d.) Both (a) and (c)

59. For the reaction, 2A+B→ products, the active mass of B is kept constant, and that of A is doubled.  The rate of reaction will be then

(a.) Decrease 4 times (b.) Decrease 2 times

(c.) Increase 4 times (d.) Increase 2 times

60. A reaction was found to order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will  

(a.) Remain unchanged (b.) Triple

(c.) Increases by factor of four (d.) Double

61. For a reaction 1/2 A→2B, rate of disappearance of ‘A’ is related to the rate of appearance of B by the expression  

(a.) -d[A]/dt=1/2  (d[B])/dt

(b.) -d[A]/dt=1/4  (d[B])/dt

(c.) -d[A]/dt=(d[B])/dt

(d.) -d[A]/dt=4 (d[B])/dt

62. The chemical reaction 2O_3→3O_2 proceeds as follows

O_3⇌O_2+O (fast)

O+O_3→2O_2  (slow)

The rate law expression should be

(a.) r=k[O_3 ]^2

(b.) r=k[O_3 ]^2  [O_2 ]^(-1)

(c.) r=k[O_3 ][O_2 ]

(d.) Unpredictable

63. Increase in the concentration of the reactants leads to the change in

(a.) Activation energy (b.) Heat of reaction

(c.) Collision frequency (d.) Threshold energy

64. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction  A→B is E_a in forward direction.  The activation energy for the reverse reaction

(a.) Is negative of E_a

(b.) Is always less than E_a

(c.) Can be less than or more than E_a

(d.) Is always double of E_a

65. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the molecularity of a reaction?

(a.) Molecularity of a reaction is the number of molecules of the reactants presents in the balanced equation  

(b.) Molecularity of a reaction is the number of molecules in the slowest step

(c.) Molecularity is always a whole number

(d.) There is no difference between order and molecularity of a reaction

66. The rate law for the chemical reaction

2NO_2CL→2NO_2+CL_2is rate =k[NO_2Cl].The rate determining step is  

(a.) 2NO_2 Cl→2NO_2+2Cl 

(b.) NO_2+Cl_2→NO_2 Cl+Cl

(c.) NO_2 Cl+Cl→NO_2+Cl_2

(d.) NO_2 Cl→NO_2+Cl

67. The unit and value of rate constant and that of rate of reaction are same for

(a.) Zero order (b.) First order

(c.) Second order (d.) Third order

68. The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br_2 to form NOBr

NO(g)+Br_2 (g)⇌NOBr_2 (g)

NOBr_2 (g)+NO(g)→2NOBr(g)

If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is

(a.) 1 (b.) 0

(c.) 3 (d.) 2

69. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15×〖10〗^(-3) s^(-1). How long will 5g of this reactant take to reduce to 3 g?

(a.) 444 s (b.) 402 s

(c.) 442 s (d.) None of these

70. The differential rate law for the reaction,

4NH_3 (g)+5O_2 (g)→4NO(g)+6H_2 O(g)

(a.) -d[NH_3 ]/dt=-d[O_2 ]/dt=-d[NO]/dt=-(d[H_2 O])/dt

(b.) d[NH_3 ]/dt=d[O_2 ]/dt=-1/4  d[NO]/dt=-1/6  (d[H_2 O])/dt

(c.) 1/4  d[NH_3 ]/dt=1/5  d[O_2 ]/dt=1/4  d[NO]/dt=1/6  (d[H_2 O])/dt

(d.) -1/4  d[NH_3 ]/dt=-1/5  d[O_2 ]/dt=1/4  d[NO]/dt=1/6  (d[H_2 O])/dt

71. Chemical reactions with very high E_a values are generally

(a.) Very fast (b.) Very slow

(c.) Moderately fast (d.) Spontaneous

72. In the reaction 3A→2B, rate of reaction +(d(B))/dt is equal to

(a.) -1/3  (d[A])/dt

(b.) -2/3  (d[A])/dt

(c.) +(2d[A])/dt

(d.) -3/2  (d[A])/dt

73. The rate constant of a first order reaction is 6.9×〖10〗^(-3) s^(-1). How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration to its 1/8th value ?

(a.) 100s (b.) 200s

(c.) 300s (d.) 400s

74. Rate of reaction depends upon

(a.) temperature (b.) catalyst

(c.) concentration (d.) All of these

 75. What is the order of a reaction which has a rate expression rate =k[A]^(3/2) [B]^(-1)?

(a.) 3/2

(b.) Zero

(c.) 1/2

(d.) None of these

76. For a chemical reaction 2X+Y→Z, the rate of appearance of Z is 0.05 mol L^(-1).  The rate of disappearance of X will be

(a.) 0.05 mol L^(-1)  h^(-1)

(b.) 0.05 mol L^(-1)  〖min〗^(-1)

(c.) 0.1 mol L^(-1)  〖min〗^(-1)

(d.) 0.25 mol L^(-1)  〖min〗^(-1)

77. The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is

(a.) ak

(b.) a/2k

(c.) a/k

(d.) 2k/a

 78. The rate equation for the reaction 2A+B→C is found to be

Rate=k[A][B]

The correct statement in relation to this reaction that the

(a.) Unit of k must be s^(-1)

(b.) t_(1/2) is constant

(c.) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A

(d.) Value of k is independent of the initial

79. A graph plotted between log⁡k  versus  1/T for calculating activation energy is shown by

(a.)  (b.)  

(c.)  (d.)  

80. In the given graph the activation energy, E_a for the reverse reaction will be

  

(a.) 150 kJ

(b.) 50 kJ

(c.) 200 kJ

(d.) 100 kJ

81. For a first order reaction, the initial concentration of a reactant is 0.05 M. After 45 min it is decreased by 0.015 M. calculation half reaction time (t_(1/2) )

(a.) 87.42 min (b.) 25.90 min 

(c.) 78.72 min (d.) 77.20 min

82. The thermal decomposition of a compound is of first order.  If a sample of the compound decompose 50% in 120 min.  What time will it take to undergo 90% decomposition?

(a.) Nearly 400 min (b.) Nearly 45 min

(c.) Nearly 480 min (d.) Nearly 240 min

83. For the reaction 

H_2 (g)+〖Br〗_2 (g)→2HBr(g)

The experimental data suggest

rate=k[H_2 ] [〖Br〗_2 ]^(1/2)

the molecularity and order of the reaction are respectively

(a.) 1,1/2

(b.) 1,1

(c.) 3/2,3/2

(d.) 2,3/2

84. The half-life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 min. the time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2=0.302)

(a.) 230.3 min (b.) 23.03 min

(c.) 46.06 min (d.) 460.6 min

85. A first order reaction is 50% complete in 30 min at 27℃ and in 10 min at 47℃.  The energy of activation of the reaction is

(a.) 52.8 kJ (b.) 23.6 kJ

(c.) 29.5 kJ (d.) 43.8 kJ

86. For a reaction  A+B→C+D, if the concentration of A is doubled without altering the concentration of B, the rate gets doubled. If the concentration of B is increased by nine times without altering the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled. The order of the reaction is 

(a.) 2 (b.) 1

(c.) 3/2 (d.) 4/3

87. For fourth order reaction, what is the unit of K?

(a.) (mol/L)^(-3) s^(-1)

(b.) (mol/L)^(+3) s^(-1)

(c.) (mol/L)^(-3) s

(d.) (mol/L)^(-3)

88. Which expression is wrong for fist order reaction?

(a.) k=(2.303)/t  log⁡(A_0/A_t )

(b.) k=t/(2.303)  log⁡(A_0/A_t )

(c.) -k=t/(2.303)  log⁡(A_t/A_0 )

(d.) Rate=k[A]

89. An endothermic reaction A→B has an activation energy of 15 kcal/mol and the energy of reaction is 5 kcal/mol.  The activation energy for the reaction B→A is

(a.) 20 kcal/mol (b.) 15 kcal/mol

(c.) 10 kcal/mol (d.) Zero

90. For a first order reaction the graph log⁡〖 [A]〗 vs t is given below

 

x is equal to

(a.) (0.693)/k

(b.) k/(2.303)

(c.) -k/(2.303)

(d.) log⁡〖〖 [A]〗_0 〗


BOTANY

91. Pteridophytes includes 

(a.)Horsetail (b.)Ferns (c.)Polytrichum (d.)A & B both

92. First terrestrial vascular plant is

(a.)Algae (b.)Bryophyta (liverwort & hornwort) (c.)Pteridophyta (d.)Bryophyta (Mosses)

93. Choose the correct statement from following

(a.)The plant body is differentiated into true root, only true prostrate stem as in Selaginella and true leaf 

(b.)The leaves of pteridophytes are small as in Selaginella or macrophyll in ferns. 

(c.)Pteridophytes possess xylem, phloem 

(d.)All of these

94. In pteridophyta

(a.)The main plant body is a sporophyte 

(b.)The main plant body is a gametophyte 

(c.)The main plant body is a gametophyte on which sporophytic phase is partially dependent 

(d.)A & C

95. Choose the correct with regard to reproduction in pteridophyte 

(a.)Sporophyte bear sporangia that are subtended by sporophyll 

(b.)Gametophyte bear sporangia that are subtended by sporophyll 

(c.)Sporophyll compact to form strobili as in fern 

(d.)The sporangia produce spores by mitosis in spore mother cell

96. Gametophyte of pteridophyte is

(a.)Small but multicellular, free living, mostly photosynthetic, differentiated into root, stemand leaf (b.)Small inconspicuous but multicellular dependent mostly photosynthetic thalloid body 

(c.)Small but multicellular, free living mostly photosynthetic thalloid structure 

(d.)Small inconspicuous but multicellular free – living mostly non – photosynthetic thalloid body

97. Water needed for fertilization in – 

(a.)Eucalyptus (b.)Bryophytes (c.)Pteridophyptes (d.)B & C both

98. Sex organ bear on 

(a.)Sporophytes (b.)Gametophyte (c.)On both gametophytes & sporophyte (d.)None

99. Heterosporous pteridophytes is/are- 

(a.)Selaginella (b.)Salvinia (c.)Psilotum (d.)A & B both

100. Pteridophytes with all similar kind of spores is in

(a.)Terror of Kashmir (b.)Psilotum (c.)Selaginella (d.)A & B both

101. Seed habit reported for first time is

(a.)Blue – green algae (b.)Pteridophyte (c.)Angiosperm (d.)Bryophyta

102. Pteridophyte classification into

(a.)4 classes (b.)4 orders (c.)4 families (d.)All of these

103. Adiantum is member with

(a.)Pteris (b.)Equisetum (c.)Lycopodium (d.)Selaginella

104. Match the following:

Column – I Column – II

(a.)Dryopteris i) Sphenopsida

(b.)Selaginella ii) Lycopsida

(c.)Psilotum iii) Psilopsida

(d.)Equisetum iv) Pteropsida

(a.)A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – I (b.)A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i 

(c.)A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv (d.)A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii

105. Identify following pteridophytes


(a.)A = Salvinia, B = horsetail, C = fern, D = Selaginella 

(b.)A = Selaginella, B = Salvinia, C = fern, D = horsetail 

(c.)A = Equisteum, B = fern, C = Selaginella, D = horsetail 

(d.)A = Selaginella, B = Salvia, C = Dryopteris, D = Equisteum



106. Label A, B, C, D, E in following diagram:

(a.)A = strobilus, B = rhizome, 

(b.)A = cone, C = Node, D = internode 

(c.)A = strobilus, B = rhizome, C = node, D = internode, E = branch 

(d.)None of these 

107. Gymnosperms are plants in which

(a.)Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall both before and after fertilization 

(b.)Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall both before and after fertilization 

(c.)Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilization but not after fertilization 

(d.)Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilization but after fertilization

108. Tallest tree species belongs to

(a.)Angiosperm (b.)Gymnosperm (c.)Pteridophyte (d.)Algae

109. Fungi show symbiotic association with gymnosperm in form of

(a.)Mycorrhiza in Pinus  (b.)Mycorrhiza in cycas  (c.)Coralloid rest in Pinus  (d.)Coralloid rest in cycas

110. The stem of

(a.)Cycas is unbranched (b.)Pinus is branched (c.)Cedrus is branched (d.)All of these

111. Artificial system of classification

(A) Includes features like anatomy, morphology and photochemistry 

(B) Was given by George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker

(C) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and floral characters

(D) Brought together the closely related species

112. System of classification proposed by Bentham and 3 Hooker 

(A) Based on natural affinities among the organisms

(B) Believes that organisms belonging to same taxa have a common ancestor

  (C) Considered embryology, photochemistry anatomy of plants as criteria and

(D) Both (A) and (C)

113. The classification of organisms on the basis of DNA sequencing is known as

(A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Chemotaxonomy

(C) Phenetics (D) Adansonian taxonomy

114. Which of the following feature was not used by Bentham and Hooker for classification of plants?

(A) External features (B) Anatomy

(C) Photochemistry (D) Phylogeny

115. Which of the following features is common in artificial, natural and phylogenetic system of classification?

(A) Anatomy (B) Phylogeny (C) Morphology (D) Phytochemistry

116. The thallus organization of Volvox is

(A) Unicellular and motile (B) Flagellate colonial

(C) Colonial and non-flagellate (D) Multicellular and coccid

117. The main criterion used in classification of algae is

A. Flagellation B. Type of pigmentation

C. Chemistry of cell wall

(A) (B) only (B) (B) and (C) only

(C) (A) and (B) only (D) (A), (B) and (C)


118. Which of the following are colonial and filamentous green algae respectively?

(A) Ulothrix and Volvox (B) Volvox and Spirogyra 

(C) Chara and Volvox (D) Chlamydomonas and Chara

119. Brown algae do not include

(A) Filamentous form (B) Unicellular from

(C) Parenchymatous form (D) Large massive form

120. Algin and carrageen obtained from

(A) Brown and red algae, respectively

(B) Red and brown algae, respectively

(C) Brown and green algae, respectively

(D) Green and red algae, respectively

121. Zoospores are absent in which of the following algae?

(A) Ectocapus (B) Laminaria      (C) Volvox (D) Polysiphonia

122. What is the food material in the members of class Rhodophyceae?

(A) Floridean starch (B) Laminarin    (C) Cellulose    (D) Proteins

123. How many of the following are associated with members of red algae? 

Laminarin and mannitol,Non-motilespores, Oogamous reproduction, 

Phycocolloids in cell wall, Complex post fertilization development

(A) Three (B) Four

(C) Two (D) Five

124. Gametangia and sporangia are non-jacketed and- unicellular in

  (A) Chara, Volvox, Polysiphonia

(B) Ulothrix, Porphyra, Volvox

(C) Chlamydomonas, Ulothrix

(D) Chara, Gelidium, Gracilaria


125. Members of class Rhodophyceae mostly found in

(A) Fresh water habitat in the coder regions

(B) Marine habitats in the warmer areas

(C) Fresh water habitat in the warmer areas

(D) Maine habitat in the colder regions


126. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is

(A) Laminaria (B) Porphyra

(C) Spirulina (D) All of these


127. Consider the following statements

A. They vary in colour from olive green to various shades of brown depending upon the amount of xanthophyll present.

B. Present at the great depths in the oceans where relatively little light penetrates.

C. The sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and formation of sex cells.

A B C

(A) Phaeophyceae Chlorophyceae Rhodophyceae

(B) Phaeophyceae Rhodophyceae Chlorophyceae

(C) Chlorophyceae Rhodophyceae Phaeophyceae

(D) Rhodophyceae Chlorophyceae Phaeophyceae


128. Choose the incorrect statements for red algae.

(A) Absence of motile stage in life cycle.

  (B) Presence of red colour pigment phycoerythrin.

(C) Female sex organ is multicellular and called nucule.

(D) Storage food is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen.


129. Juvenile, filamentous stage of moss

(A) Is called protonema

(B) Develops from germination of spore

(C) Reproduces by fragmentation

(D) All of these


130. Which of the following is a dioecious bryophyte?

(A) Funaria (B) Sphagnum

(C) Marchantia (D) Riccia

131. Which of these may not be an ecological importance of bryophytes?

(A) Peat formation used as fuel.

(B) Frist organisms to colonise rocks.

(C) Reduce the impact of falling rain. 

(D) Prevent soil erosion.


132. In which of the following bryophyte, sporophyte is not  divided into foot, seta and capsule?

(A) Marchantia (B) Riccia

(C) Sphagnum (D) Funaria


133. Funaria consists of upright slender axes bearing arranged leaves

(A) Spirally (B) Whorled

(C) Oppositely (D) Both (B) and (C)


134. Pteridophytes do not form

(A) Cones (B) Prothallus

(C) Spores (D) Seeds


135. Pteridophytes are more advance than bryophytes. Which of the following features of pteridophytes justify this statement?

(A) Internal fertilization

(B) Sporophytic plant body 

(C) Presence of vascular tissue

(D) More than one option is correct

ZOOLOGY

136. For the chemical composition analysis is used:-

CH3COOH

CH3COOH − Cl

Cl3 − CCOOH

Cl3 − COOH

137. Acid – insoluble pool is also known as:-  

(a.)Slurry (b.) Retentate    (c.) filtrate   (d.) All

138. Filtrate obtained after grinding of living tissue is also known as

(a.) Slurry (b.) Acid – soluble (c.) Acid insoluble pool (d.) All

139. The R – group in a proteinaceous amino acid could be 

(a.) Hydrogen (b.) Methyl group (c.) Hydroxy methyl (d.) Any of the above

140. Which of the following is neutral in nature:- 

a.) Valine                  (b.) Serine                  (c.) Alanine                 (d.) All

141.A particular property of amino acid is the ionizable nature of 

(a.) –H (b.) – 𝑁𝐻2 (c.) 𝐶𝐻3 (d.) All

142. If the R – group of amino acid is methyl

 (a.) Glycine (b.) Serine (c.) Alanine (d.) Any of the above

143. Lipids are generally ___ insoluble

(a.) fat (b.) water (c.) Lipid (d.) All

144. Lipids could be a ______fatty acids or has a ______group attached to an R – group. 

(a.) Carboxyl; fatty acid (b.) Fatty acid; simple 

     (c.) Carboxyl; simple (d.) Simple; carboxyl

145. Palmitic acid has ______number of carbons including carboxyl carbon. 

(a.) 16 (b.) 15 (c.) 14 (d.) 12

146. Arachidonic acid has ______number of carbon atoms including the carboxyl

 (a.) 16                            (b.) 20 (c.) 21 (d.) 19

147. Fatty acids could be _____( with double bonds) or ______ ( without double bonds). 

(a.) Saturated; Unsaturated (b.) Unsaturated; Saturated 

(c.) Saturated; Saturated (d.) Unsaturated; Unsaturated

148. The oil have lower melting point 

(a.) All fats   (b.) triglycerides    (c.) Gingelly oil      (d.) All

149. Adenine esterified with sugar is known as 

 (a.) Adenylic acid (b.) Adenosine (c.) Adenotine (d.) None of the above

150. Which of the following is a Nucleoside

       (a.) Adenylic acid (b.) Uridine         (c.) Thymidylic acid (d.) All

151. Proteins are

 (a.) Polypeptides                                  (b.) Linear chains of amino acid linked by peptide bonds 

(c.) Polymer of amino acids                 (d.) All of them.

152. The most abundant enzyme in animal world is i)__ while in whole of the biosphere is ii)___

(a.) (i) Collagen (ii) PEPcase (b.) (i) (ii) PEPcase 

(c.) (i) Collagen (ii) 𝑅𝑈𝐵𝑖𝑠𝐶𝑂 (d.) None of them

153. A polysaccharide contains 

(a.) Different Monosacharides (b.) Same type of monosaccharide 

(c.) like cellulose (d.) All of these

154. A adult human Hb (Haemoglobin) consists of subunits. 

(a.) 1                              (b.) 2                        (c.) 3 (d.) 4

155. Which of the following is a zwitterionic form. 

 

156. Alkaloids; Flavonoids; Rubber; Essential oils; antibiotics; coloured pigments; scents; Gums

spices How many of the above are primary metabolites

(a.) 7 (b.) 9 (c.) 5 (d.) None

157. Few _______ metabolites have ecological importance‟s

(a.) Primary & secondary (b.) Secondary & Primary

(c.) Only Primary (d.) Only Secondary

158.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH

 (a.) A glycerol molecule      (b.) A fatty acid (c.) An amino acid (d.) A carbohydrate

159. Which of the following is the compound represents the shown figure

(a.) A purine (Adenine)

(b.) A pyrimidine (Uracil)

(c.) A purine (Uracil)

(d.) A pyrimidine (Adenine) 

160. Which of the following is a Nucleoside

(a.) Adenylic acid (b.) Uridine (c.) Thymidylic acid (d.) All

161. which of the following group represents Lectins

(a.) Abrin; Ricin (b.) Monoterpenes; Diterpenes

(c.) Concanavalin – A   (d.) None of the above

162. How many of the following statement is true regarding lipids in Biomacromolecules:- 

i) Lipids are polymeric substances. ii) Have molecular weight less than 10,000 Da.

iii) Molecular weight do not exceed 800 Da.

(a.) only i) & ii) (b.) only iii) (c.) All i); ii) & iii) (d.) only ii) & iii)

163. A protein if a heteropolymer

 (a.) It contains only one types of amino acids. (b.) it contains different types of amino acids.

(c.) both (d.) None

164. Nucleic acids like DNA & RNA consist of

(a.) Nucleotide & nucleoside (b.) Nucleoside only

(c.) Nucleotide only (d.) Nucleotide & phosphate groups

165. Cellulose and starch is a homopolymer of 

(a.) Glucose (b.) Fructose (b.) Galactose (d.) None

166. Nucleic acids are

(a.) Polynucleosides (b.) Polynucleotides (c.) Both (d.) None

167. Adenine and ______ are _______ purines 

(a.) Cytosine; Substituted (b.) Guanine; Substituted

(c.) Uracil; Substituted (d.) Guanine; Unsubstituted

168. In a protein the left end represents

(a.) First amino acid & C – terminal (b.) Last amino acid &N – terminal

(c.) First amino acid & N – terminal (d.) Last amino acid & C – terminal

169. In a protein the right end represents 

(a.) First amino acid & C – terminal (b.) Last amino acid &N – terminal

(c.) First amino acid & N – terminal (d.) Last amino acid & C – terminal

170. The long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball known as

(a.) Primary structure (b.) Secondary Structure (c.) Tertiary structure (d.) None of the above

171. Identify the diagram given below

(a.) (i) Primary (ii) Secondary

(b.) (i) Secondary (ii) Tertiary

(c.) (i) Tertiary (iii) Primary

(d.) None of the above

172. A adult human Hb (Haemoglobin) consists of ________ subunits.

(a.) 1 (b.) 2 (c.) 3 (d.) 4

173. ________ subunits of α – type and ____ of β – type together constitute the human

haemoglobin(Hb)

(a.) 2; 4 (b.) 2; 2 (c.) 4; 2 (d.) 4; 4

174. Choose the correct nitrogen base pairing of DNA 

(a.) A ≡ T (b.) A = U (c.) A = T (d.) A ≡ U

175. The acid used in the chemical analysis of living tissue is  

(A) Sulphuric acid.

(B) Nitric acid.

(C) Hydrochloric acid.

(D) Trichloroacetic acid.

176. Mark the incorrect set with respect to secondary metabolites.

(A) Abrin, ricin

(B) Rubber, cellulose

(C) Monoterpenes, diterpenes

(D) Adenosine, sucrose

177. Identify the heteropolysaccharide among the following sugars:

(A) Cellulose (B) Inulin

(C) Starch (D) Peptidoglycan

178. Zwitterion has

(A) Only positive charge.

(B) Only negative charge. 

(C) Both positive and negative charges

(D) Either positive or negative charge.

`179. All are essential fatty acids except

(A) Arachidonic acid. (B) Oleic acid.

(C) Linoleic acid. (D) Linolenic acid.

180. A fatty acid with two double bonds is

(A) Oleic acid. (B) Linolenic acid. (C) Linoleic acid. (D) Arachidonic acid.


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