PHYSICS
1. Where will be the centre of mass on
combining two masses m and M (M>m)
(a) Towards m (b)
Towards M (c) Between m and M (d)
Anywhere
2. А
cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass as shown, then
(a) The two pieces will have the same mass
(b) The bottom piece will have larger mass
(c) The handle piece will have larger mass
(d) Mass of handle piece is double the mass
of bottom piece
3. Identify the correct statement for the
rotational motion of a rigid body
(a) Individual particles of the body do not
undergo accelerated motion
(b) The centre of mass of the body remains
unchanged.
(c) The centre of mass of the body moves uniformly
in a circular path
(d) Individual particles and centre of mass
of the body undergo an accelerated motion
4. Five particles of mass 2 kg are attached
to the rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1 m and negligible mass. Moment of
inertia of the system about the axis passing through the centre of the disc and
perpendicular to its plane is
(a) 1 kg-m² (b) 0.1 kg-m² (c)
2 kg-m² (d) 0.2 kg-m²
5. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass
50 g and radius 2.5cm, about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and
perpendicular to the plane, is
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 1.76 cm (c)
3.54 сm (d)
6.54 cm
6. Let F be the force acting on a particle
having position vector r and Ϯ be the
torque of this force about the origin. Then
7. A
force F = 2.0N acts on a particle P in the xz-plane. The force F is parallel to
x-axis. The particle P (as shown in the figure) is at a distance 3 m and the
line joining P with the origin makes angle 30° with the x-axis. The magnitude
of torque on P with respect to origin O (in N-m) is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)
4 (d) 5
8. 
9. 
10.
The moment of momentum is called
(a) Couple (b)
Torque (c) Impulse (d) Angular momentum
11. When a man stands on a turn-table
stretching with two equal loads in hand and rotates. Then he folds his arm.
Which of the following statement is correct
(a) Linear momentum is conserved (b)
Kinetic energy increases
(c) Angular momentum increases (d)
Angular velocity increases
12. Which of the following statements are
incorrect about centre of mass
I. Centre of mass can coincide with
geometrical centre of Das a body.
II. Centre of mass of a system of two
particles does not always lie on the line joining the particles.
III. Centre of mass should always lie on
the body.
(a) II and III (b) I and II (c)
I and III (d)
I, II and III
13. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct optión
I. Position vector of centre of mass of two
particles of equal mass is equal to the position vector of either particle.
II. Centre of mass is always at the
mid-point of the line joining two particles.
III. Centre of mass of a body can lie where
there is no mass.
(a)
I and II (b) II only (c) III only (d) I, II and III
14. Select the correct statement(s) from
the following
I. Moment of inertia is a scalar quantity.
II. Angular acceleration requires torque.
III. The rotational equivalent of distance
is radius.
IV. State of rest or motion of centre of
mass can never be changed.
(a) I only (b)
II only (c) I and II (d) II and IV
15. Match the Column I and Column II
16. Match the column I and column II
17. Match the column I and column II
18. The motion of planets in the solar
system is an example of the conservation of
(a) Mass (b) Linear momentum (c) Angular
momentum (d) Energy
19. A body of mass m slides down an incline
and reaches the bottom with a velocity u. If the same mass were in the form of
a ring which rolls down this incline, the velocity of the ring at bottom would
have been
20. The ratio of radius of gyration of a
solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of
gyration of thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is
CHEMISTRY
21.Match
the Column–I and Column –II
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
22. Assertion (A) : For any chemical
reaction at a particular temperature the equilibrium constant is fixed and is
characteristic property.
Reason (R) : Equilibrium constant is
independent of temperature.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct
23. Match List – I with List – II
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
24.
at 500°C, the value of Kp is 1.44 × 10-5,
when the partial pressure is measured in atmospheres. The corresponding value
of KC with concentration in mol L-1 is
25. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container, N2O4 (g) 
2NO2 (g). At a fixed temperature, the volume
of the reaction container is halved. For this change which of the following
statements hold true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp ) and degree of
dissociation (a) ?
1) Kp does not change, but a changes 2) Kp changes, but a does not
change
3) Both Kp and a change 4)
Neither Kp nor a changes
26. For the reaction, H2 (g) + I2
(g) 2HI(g); KC = 57.0 at 700 K. The molar
concentration of [H2 ] t = 0.10 M, [I2 ] t = 0.20 M and [HI]t = 0.40 N.
Calculate the reaction quotient, QC of the reaction.
1) 10.0 2)
7.0 3) 8.0 4) 12.0
27. Production of ammonia according to the
reaction, 
is an exothermic
process. At low temperature, the
1) forward direction 2) backward direction
3) either forward or backward direction 4) none of the above
28. Equilibrium constant for the reaction
29. For a reaction, C(s) + CO2 (g) ® 2CO(g)
the partial pressure of CO2 and CO are 4 and 8 atm, respectively, Kp for the
reaction is
1) 0.5 2)
2 3) 16 4) 4
30. In the reaction,
X and Y respectively are
1) Neutral and acid 2) Acid and base 3)
Base and acid 4) Base and
neutral
31. Which of the following species can act
as a Lewis base?
1) H2O
2) AlCl3 3) BF3 4) Mg2+
32. The degree of dissociation of a 0.1 M
aqueous solution of weak acid HA is (Ka (HA) = 10-7)
33. Which of the following pairs
constitutes a buffer?
34. Salt which undergoes only cationic
hydrolysis is
35. In a reaction 
degree of
dissociation is 30%. If initial moles of PCl5 is one then total moles at
equilibrium is
1) 1.3 2)
0.7 3) 1.6 4) 1.0
36. The pH of 0.001 M Ba(OH)2
solution will be
1) 2 2)
8.4 3) 11.3 4) 2.7
37. For the reaction, 
,2 moles of A and
3 moles of B are allowed to react. If the equilibrium constant is 4 at 400°C,
then the moles of C at equilibrium is
1) 2.4 2)
1.2 3) 0.6 4) 1.0
38. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of
ammonium acetate is (pKa CH3COOH = 4.76 pKb NH4 OH = 4.75)
1) 7.005 2)
9.510 3) 4.750 4) 6.995
39. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept of
acids and bases a conjugate acid-base pair can exist as
40. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a
pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is converted into CO on addition of graphite.
The value of K at 1000 K, when total pressure equilibrium is 0.8 atm will be
1) 2.5 atm 2)
3.6 atm 3) 1.8 atm 4) 0.9 atm
41.
The indicator used in titration of oxalic acid with caustic soda solution is
(1.) Methyl
orange (2.)
Methyl red
(3.) Fluorescein (4.)
Phenolphthalein
42.
Which of the following salt does not get hydrolysed in water?
(1.) 
(2.)
(3.) 
(4.)
None of these
43.
The equilibrium which remains unaffected by change in pressure of the reactants
is
(1.) 
(2.) 
(3.) 
(4.)
44. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s
process,
Which of the following condition is unfavourable?
(1.) Increasing the temperature (2.) Increasing the pressure
(3.) Reducing the temperature (4.) Removing ammonia as
it is formed
45. What is the effect of
having the pressure by doubling the volume on the following system at 
?
(1.) Shift
to product side (2.)
Shift to
reactant side
(3.) Liquifactionof
HI (4.)
No effect
46.
If pressure increases then its effect on given equilibrium
is shift in
(1.) Forward direction (2.)
Backward direction
(3.) No effect (4.)
None of these
47.
In the reaction, 
In a 2 I flask 0.4 moles of each 
are taken. At equilibrium 0.5 moles of 
are formed. What will be the value of
equilibrium constant 
?
(1.) 20.2 (2.)
25.4
(3.) 0.284 (4.)
11.1
48. The equilibrium constant
for the reaction 
is 
then the equilibrium constant for the
equilibrium,
is
(1.) 
(2.) 
(3.) 
(4.) 
49.
Which of the following solutions cannot act as a buffer?
(1.) 
(2.)
(3.) 
(4.)
50. The pH of an aqueous solution of 
of concentration 
is given by
(1.) 
(2.)
(3.) 
(4.)
BOTANY
51.Blue – green algae placed in which
kingdom according to R.H. Whittaker
(a.)Monera
(b.)Protista (c.)Fungi (d.)Plantae
52. Choose the correct statement algae:
(a.)Algae are chlorophyllous, autotrophic
member of Plantae
(b.)Some algae occur in association with
fungi and on sloth bear
(c.)The plant body of algae lack root,
stem, leaf
(d.)All of these
53. Colonial form alga is –
(a.)Ulothrix (b.)Volvox (c.)Kelp
(d.)Spirogyra
54. Zoospore is
(a.)Sexual spore in algae (b.)Asexual
spore in algae
(c.)Develop in zoosporangium in number of
four (d.)Non flagellated
spore
55. Fusion between one large static female
gametes and smaller motile male gamete is termed as ___ as seen is ___
(a.)Isogamous, Spirogyra (b.)Oogamous,
Volvox
(c.)Anisogamous, Fucus (d.)Oogamous,
Ulothrix
56. Eudorina show
(a.)Fusion of flagellate similar size
gamete
(b.)Fusion of non – flagellate similar size
gamete
(c.)Oogamous
(d.)Anisogamous
57. Choose correct statement
(a.)Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich in
protein
(b.)Chlorella & Spirulina are astronaut
food because of their high carbohydrate, vitamin mineral but less protein
(c.)The product obtained by Gracilaria are
used to grow microbes
(d.)Laminaria, Sargassum a member of
Rhodophyceae are among 70 species of marine algae used as food Paragraph
58. Chlorophyceae are commonly called as
(a.)Green algae (b.)Blue – green algae (c.)Brown
algae
(d.)Red algae
59. Major pigment of Chlamydomonas –
(a.)Chlorophyll a, b (b.)Chlorophyll a, c (c.)Chlorophyll a, d (d.)Fucoxanthin, phycoerythrin
60. Choose incorrect statement about green
alga-
(a.)The chlorophyll localised in definite
chloroplast
(b.)Spirogyra have spiral chloroplast
(c.)Most member have one or more storage
bodies i.e. pyrenoid localised in chloroplast
(d.)The cell wall is made of outer layer
that is of cellulose and inner layer of pectose
61. Reproduction in green algae is/are
(a.)Isogamous (b.)Anisogamous
(c.)Oogamous (d.)All of
these
62. Chara is
(a.)Common stonewort (b.)Marine green algae (c.)Unisexual algae (d.)None of these
63. The color of brown algae depend upon
(a.)Amount of xanthophyll (b.)Fucoxanthin
present in them (c.)Phycoerythrin and fucoxanthin ratio (d.)A & B both
64. Choose the correct about cell of brown
algae
(a.)Cellulosic cell wall cover outside by
align
(b.)Cellulosic cell wall with pectin and
polysulphate esters
(c.)They have two flagella, equal sized and
laterally inserted
(d.)A and C both
65. Dictyota is member of
(a.)Same member of Ectocarpus, Gelidium,
fucus
(b.)Same member those having Caminaria or
mannitol as stored food
(c.)Same member of Laminaria, Porphyra,
fucus
(d.)Same member those having phycoerythrin
as accessory pigment
66. Gametes of Sargassum are
(a.)Pyriform (b.)Cup – shaped (c.)Ribbon – shaped (d.)Discoid
67. Rhodopyceae is called red algae because
of
(a.)Predominance of red pigment (b.)Abundance
if d – phycoerythrin
(c.)A & B both (d.)None
of these
68. The stored food in Polysiphonia is _A
which is very similar to B and _C in structure
(a.)A = floridean starch B = amylopectin C =
glycogen
(b.)A = floridean starch B = chitin C =
glycogen
(c.)A = mannitol B = floridean starch C =
amylopectin
(d.)None of these
69. Choose the correct statement with
regard to bryophyte
(a.)Sporophyte is free – living but
attached to photosynthetic gametophyte derives nourishment from it
(b.)Sporophyte is not free – living but attached to photosynthetic gametophyte
and derives nourishment from it
(c.)Gametophyte is not free – living but
attached to photosynthetic sporophyte and derives nourishment from it
(d.)Gametophyte is free living but attached
to photosynthetic sporophyte and derives nourishment from it
70. First organism to colonize rock are
(a.)Mosses (b.)Lichen
(c.)Liverwort (d.)A & B both
ZOOLOGY
71.Go
through the following figure
72. Each
kidney has how many nephrons?
(a.)
About 2 million (b.) About 1 million (c.) About 5000 (d.) About 50000
73. The
DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube called
(a.)
PCT (b.) Loop of Henle (c.) Collecting duct (d.) Bowman's capsule
74. Vasa
recta is
(a.)
shaped (b.) S-shaped (c.) U-shaped (d.) J-shaped
75.
76. The glomerular capillaries cause
filtration of blood through ____ layers
(a.) 1 (b.)
2 (c.) 3 (d.) 6
77. The layers between the blood in
glomerular blood Bowman's space are
(a.) Tunica media + Cuboidal epithelium+
Basement's membrane
(b.) Endothelium + Epithelium of Bowman's
capsule + Basement membrane between the 2 layers
(c.) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessel
+ Endothelium of Bowman's capsule + Parietal layer of Bowman's capsule
(d.) Tunica media + Epithelium of Bowman's
capsule + Endothelium of Bowman's capsule
78. The GFR/day in a healthy adult is
(a.) 5 L (b.)
180 L (c.) 200 L (d.) 20 L
79. The amount of the filtrate formed by
the kidney / minute is called GFR (Glomerular Filtration
Rate). The GFR of a healthy adult is-
(a.) 80 mL/min
(b.) 125 mL/min
(c.) 300 mL/min
(d.) 20 mL/min
80. Which one plays an important role in
counter current mechanism?
(a.) Vasa recta
(b.) PCT
(c.) Loop of Henle
(d.) A and C
81. The medullary gradient is mainly caused
by
(a.) Urea & K+
(b.) H+ and K+
(c.) NaCl and Urea
(d.) Urea and H+
82. Of the filtrate, nearly how many of it
is reabsorbed by the renal tubules?
(a.) 5%
(b.) 99%
(c.) 50%
(d.) 25%
83. Osmoregulation is the function of
(a.) Oxytocin
(b.) Prolactin
(c.) Vasopressin (ADH)
(d.) None of the above
84. ADH is synthesised by, ___________
released by _______ and acts on _________.
(a.) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis, DCT and
CT
(b.) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis, Loop of
Henle
(c.) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis, DCT and
CT
(d.) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis, Loop of
Henle
85. The expulsion of urine from the urinary
bladder is called
(a.) Uricolysis
(b.) Micturition
(c.) Uremia
(d.) Anuria
86. Average pH of human urine is
(a.) 6 (b.)
9 (c.) 3 (d.) 7
87. How much urea is excreted per day by a
normal adult?
(a.) 0 gm (b.)
25 – 30 gm (c.) 50 gm (d.) 1 – 2 gm
88. Other than kidneys, which of the
following also helps in the elimination of excretory wastes
(a.) Skin
(b.) Liver
(c.) Lungs
(d.) All
89. How much CO2 is removed per
minute by our lungs-
(a.) 18 Ml (b.)
200 Ml (c.) 1L (d.) 8 L
90. NaCl is returned to the by the
ascending limb of vasa recta
(a.) Ascending limb of Henle's loop
(b.) DCT
(c.) PCT
(d.) Interstitial fluid of medulla
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